Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 08:00
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Fugiat rerum itaque dolorem rem.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Is it considered rude to comment on someone's weight? Is it simply stating a fact?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
A traveler infected with measles flew into Miami. What are the next steps? - Miami Herald
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.